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      A few more comments on notable inconsistencies in Matthew's gospel. Just what was Matthew's position on Gentiles and Jews (in the original manuscript). For example we are told that 'the gospel is for the lost sheep of Israel.' Stay away from Gentiles and Samaritans, we are told in chapter ten. Gentiles are also called dogs that Christ refuses to even acknowledge, and then when he does acknowledge them, he calls them dogs. The Jewish people are superior and dogs should wait and eat the scraps left over at the table. Then again in Matthew Chapter 8:5-13 we are told the story of a Roman (Gentile) centurion who received a miracle, and furthermore is presented as holier than the Jewish people. In fact, so the parable states in verse 10, the Jewish people would be 'cast into the outer darkness to weep and grind their teeth'.

"I have not found so great faith, no, not in Israel. And I say unto you, that many shall come from the east and the west (ie. Gentiles), and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven: but the sons of the kingdom (ie. the Jewish people) shall be cast forth into the outer darkness: there shall be the weeping and the gnashing of teeth."

      This is a repeat of a parable found in Luke Chapter 7. The difference in Luke is that the point has to be made that the Centurion, a Gentile, is 'worthy' to be healed because he built the synagogue. It used to be my opinion that this parable was moved to Matthew from Luke by later redactors in the church to 'harmonize' the anti-Gentile slant in Matthew's gospel with both Mark and Luke. However, this passage in Luke sounds more appropriate to Matthew's gospel, but the lines are not found in Matthew. This suggests that a better explanation might be that Luke borrowed the parable from Matthew, and expanded upon it, which then suggests that the 'anti-Gentile' slant found in Matthew's gospel was a later interpolation. The lines found in Luke, but not in Matthew, follow.

"And they, when they came to Jesus, besought him earnestly, saying, He is worthy that thou shouldest do this for him; for he loveth our nation, and himself built us our synagogue."

      IN Matthew's gospel Christ needs no convincing and simply says, 'I will come and heal him.' All this is quite peculiar. So the question remains, was the original Matthew gospel 'anti-Gentile' (not to mention 'Anti-David') and was it for Torah reform or was it for the 'infallible inerrancy' of the Bible? I am starting to think that the original Matthew gospel did not contain these anti-Gentile elements, but rather much closer to Mark's gospel in its original form. I am also thinking that a page on this Matthew gospel will be the last one I wind up posting, and Luke and John will come first. Matthew is more complex, or so it seems to me? Just who was Matthew? Were the Jewish people superior or were they to hurled out to 'weep and grind their teeth?'